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ISEE Upper

ISEE Upper Reading practice test

  • 36 questions
  • 35 minutes
  • Nothing is deducted for a wrong answer
  • Free

The Reading section of the ISEE Upper practice test — 36 questions. Mark your answers, then press Finish at the bottom to see your score.

This is the same test the app serves as Practice Test 1. Working it here spends it: these questions will not be new when you take the test against the clock in the app.

Nothing is marked while you work, just as on the real test. The answers and the worked explanations open when you finish. What you mark is kept in this browser, so closing the tab does not lose it.

Questions 1–6

1
The reef aquarium at the coastal science
2
center looked healthiest when the water
3
was clearest. Visitors liked to stand
4
before the glass after the filters had run
5
all night, when the coral shapes appeared
6
sharp and the fish seemed to float in
7
empty space. The tank held eleven thousand
8
liters behind glass eight centimeters
9
thick, and its pumps turned the whole
10
volume over six times an hour. Dr. Velez,
11
who cared for the aquarium, warned her
12
interns that clear water was not the only
13
sign of health. A reef also depended on
14
tiny drifting organisms that were easy to
15
remove by accident.
16
The interns learned this after a new
17
filter system was installed. The water
18
became brilliantly clear, but several
19
corals opened less fully during feeding
20
times. At first, the team suspected a
21
change in temperature or salt level. Both
22
measurements were normal. Then Dr. Velez
23
asked the interns to compare water samples
24
before and after the filter ran. Under a
25
microscope, they saw that the new system
26
removed many of the plankton-sized
27
particles the corals had been catching.
28
The problem was not that the filter was
29
bad. It was doing one job too well. The
30
team adjusted the schedule so the filter
31
ran strongly after public hours but more
32
gently during feeding periods. They also
33
added a separate screen that trapped
34
larger waste while allowing smaller food
35
particles to remain longer. Its mesh
36
measured two hundred microns, wide enough
37
for copepods and larvae to drift through
38
and fine enough to hold shed tissue and
39
uneaten pellets. The interns recorded
40
coral behavior before and after these
41
steps, taking later improvement as
42
evidence that the combined changes may
43
have helped. Within two weeks, the corals
44
began opening more fully again.
45
The aquarium still looked clear to
46
visitors, but the staff now judged it by
47
more than appearance. The lesson was not
48
simply that cloudy water is good or clear
49
water is bad. It was that an ecosystem can
50
depend on things too small to notice. In
51
caring for the reef, the interns had to
52
learn that removing everything from the
53
water could also remove what the living
54
animals needed.

Question 1

Which best describes the main idea of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: A — A reef aquarium’s health depends on more than water clarity.

The passage’s lesson is that clear water is not the only sign of health because an ecosystem can depend on unnoticed particles. B restates the visitors’ opening impression, which the staff later outgrow. C reverses the problem: removing plankton-sized food was the filter’s harm, not its benefit. D is the overcorrection the last paragraph rejects: the lesson is not simply that cloudy water is good or clear water is bad.

Question 2

According to the passage, microscope samples showed that

Show answer

Answer: D — the new filter removed many small particles that corals ate.

Under the microscope, the interns saw that the new system removed many of the plankton-sized particles the corals had been catching. A is what the team first suspected, but both measurements were normal. B reverses the finding: particles were present before filtering and reduced after. C misapplies a later detail: the added screen was wide enough for copepods and larvae to drift through, and it was not what the samples showed.

Question 3

In line 30, “adjusted” most nearly means

Show answer

Answer: C — changed slightly to improve.

The team changed the filter schedule to make it work better for the aquarium.

Question 4

Based on the passage, it can be reasonably inferred that Dr. Velez asked the interns to compare samples before and after filtering because she

Show answer

Answer: A — suspected the filter was changing what remained in the water.

Dr. Velez asked for before-and-after samples only after temperature and salt had already tested normal, implying she suspected the filter itself was changing what remained in the water. The microscope work was not a second temperature or salt check, so B is false. She had already warned that clear water was not the only sign of health, so she was not trying to prove that clearer water meant healthier coral, and C is false. The samples showed the filter removing plankton-sized food particles, not merely that it cleared waste as designed, so D is false.

Question 5

How does the second paragraph contribute to the passage?

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Answer: B — It identifies the unexpected problem caused by the new filter

The second paragraph shows that the new filter made the water brilliantly clear while removing food particles, which is the unexpected problem (B). A misreads the diagnostic checks: temperature and salt were normal, yet the corals still opened less fully. C belongs to the third paragraph, where the team adds a coarser screen. D belongs to the fourth paragraph, where staff judge the aquarium by more than appearance.

Question 6

Why does the author contrast appearance with health?

Show answer

Answer: C — To show that a system can look good while losing something important.

The reef looked clean to visitors even as it lost plankton the corals needed, so the contrast shows that a system can look good while losing something important. A and B overstate the last paragraph, which rejects the simple claim that clear water is bad or cloudy water is good. D contradicts the team’s solution: they adjusted the filter and added a screen rather than abandoning filtration.

Questions 7–12

1
A multicolor woodblock print is built from
2
separate pieces that the viewer never sees
3
at once. One carved block may carry the
4
dark outline, another a field of blue, and
5
another a small area of red. The printer
6
inks one block, lays the paper against it,
7
and presses. Then the same sheet must
8
return for every additional color. If its
9
position shifts even slightly, a blue
10
sleeve may drift beyond its outline or a
11
red flower may acquire a pale edge.
12
Small guide marks help register each block
13
in the same position. The printer rests a
14
corner and an edge of the paper against
15
those marks before every impression. This
16
method looks repetitive, but it requires
17
judgment at each step. Damp paper
18
stretches; carved wood changes with use; a
19
layer of ink can be thicker than expected.
20
Printers may test an impression, adjust
21
the pressure, and compare it with earlier
22
sheets before continuing the edition. The
23
final picture conceals much of this
24
careful sequence because its colors appear
25
to belong together naturally.
26
Perfect alignment is not always the only
27
desirable result. To register the colors
28
is to align their separate impressions,
29
yet a slight offset can create a bright
30
rim that makes a form vibrate against its
31
background. In another print, the same
32
error may blur a face or interrupt a fine
33
line. The printer must decide whether the
34
edge contributes energy or merely
35
distracts. This tension between precision
36
and accident keeps registration from
37
becoming a mechanical formula. It also
38
explains why two prints made from the same
39
blocks can have noticeably different
40
character even when neither is damaged.
41
The picture arrives one transparent layer
42
at a time, yet the audience encounters the
43
layers as a single scene. Looking closely
44
can reverse that experience: the eye
45
begins to separate colors, imagine the
46
order of printing, and notice where one
47
carved decision meets another. A missing
48
color would alter the balance, but so
49
would a change in the space between
50
colors. The technique therefore shapes
51
meaning rather than merely decorating an
52
outline. Historical knowledge about paper
53
and pigments can deepen this reading, but
54
the visible edges remain the evidence.
55
Multicolor printing succeeds through
56
control that leaves room for variation,
57
and its most expressive moments may occur
58
exactly where two carefully planned colors
59
almost—but do not perfectly—meet.
60
The order of the impressions creates
61
another set of choices. A pale layer
62
printed first may glow through a darker
63
transparent color, while the reverse order
64
can make the same area look dense.
65
Printers therefore plan not only where
66
each color belongs but also when it will
67
arrive. They may leave a small portion of
68
paper untouched to create the brightest
69
highlight in the scene. As the edition
70
proceeds, ink consistency and paper
71
dampness must be watched so that an early
72
sheet and a later one remain recognizably
73
related. Small differences still survive.
74
For a viewer comparing several
75
impressions, those differences reveal the
76
work as a performance repeated with
77
blocks, paper, pressure, and judgment—not
78
as a single image copied without change. A
79
faint border beside one color may record a
80
momentary shift of paper, while a stronger
81
border repeated across the edition may
82
reveal an intentional adjustment. Reading
83
those edges requires comparison rather
84
than a quick label of “error.”

Question 7

A printer reverses two transparent color layers but keeps registration and an unprinted highlight. What result is best supported?

Show answer

Answer: D — Overlapping colors would change in density.

A reversed order can make an area look dense, while untouched paper remains the brightest highlight. A is wrong because guide marks, not impression order, place the paper. B is wrong because an unprinted highlight would not be covered by the darker color. C is wrong because the passage says reverse order can change density.

Question 8

According to the passage, how are guide marks used?

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Answer: D — They position a corner and edge of the paper before each impression.

The printer rests the paper against the marks before every impression to register the separate blocks.

Question 9

Which statement best expresses the central idea of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: B — Planned alignment and sequence still leave room for judged variation.

The passage presents control of position, order, pressure, and materials alongside small evaluated differences that can give related impressions distinct character. A is wrong because the prints are not identical copies. C is wrong because offsets are sometimes useful, not a replacement for precision. D is wrong because the space between colors also shapes meaning.

Question 10

In line 30, “vibrate” most nearly means that the printed form

Show answer

Answer: B — stands out as if charged against its background.

The slight offset creates a bright rim that makes a form “vibrate” against its background, a figurative way of saying the shape stands out with energy. A takes the verb literally. C describes a harmful misalignment later in the same paragraph, not this bright rim. D describes a one-sheet paper shift from the final paragraph.

Question 11

Which best describes the organization of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: A — It moves from separate blocks to registration, then to order and edition differences.

The passage begins with layered blocks, then treats registration and offsets, then order and variation across an edition. B is wrong because the essay does not conclude that mechanical control makes identical sheets. C is wrong because bright rims are an example, not the opening, and misalignment is not the governing choice. D is wrong because overlapping pigments are not presented as the source of meaning.

Question 12

Why does the author contrast a faint border on one sheet with a stronger border repeated across an edition?

Show answer

Answer: D — to show that comparison can distinguish a momentary shift from an intentional adjustment.

The final comparison explains how repetition across sheets helps a viewer judge whether an edge records a temporary paper shift or a deliberate decision.

Questions 13–18

1
On January 15, 1919, a steel storage
2
tank in Boston’s North End burst,
3
releasing more than two million gallons
4
of molasses into a crowded neighborhood.
5
The surge crushed buildings, damaged an
6
elevated railway, and killed twenty-one
7
people. Molasses, familiar as something
8
poured reluctantly from a kitchen
9
container, seemed an improbable
10
instrument of destruction. Yet its
11
domestic reputation offered no
12
protection against the weight of an
13
enormous quantity suddenly set loose.
14
The strangeness of the material would
15
make the disaster memorable; explaining
16
its escape required less picturesque
17
attention.
18
The tank had been erected in 1915 for
19
the Purity Distilling Company, a
20
subsidiary of United States Industrial
21
Alcohol. Its history supplied evidence
22
that the wreckage alone could not.
23
Molasses had leaked through its seams,
24
and the structure had never undergone a
25
full water test before entering service.
26
Nevertheless, it had remained standing
27
through earlier fillings. That record
28
could suggest reliability to someone
29
watching operations continue, although
30
it established only that the tank had
31
survived those particular loads.
32
Repetition made the arrangement familiar
33
without necessarily making it sound.
34
After the flood, United States
35
Industrial Alcohol argued that a
36
saboteur’s bomb had destroyed the tank.
37
Political violence was a real concern at
38
the time, so the suggestion drew on
39
fears that extended beyond this
40
neighborhood. It also placed the
41
decisive cause outside the company’s
42
ordinary operations. If an attacker had
43
destroyed an adequate tank, the question
44
of responsibility would differ
45
considerably from that raised by a tank
46
unable to contain its contents. The
47
plausibility of violence in the world,
48
however, could not establish that
49
violence had caused this particular
50
collapse.
51
The resulting civil litigation stretched
52
over years. A court-appointed auditor
53
heard extensive testimony, including
54
evidence about the tank’s design,
55
construction, and behavior before the
56
flood. In 1925, he rejected the sabotage
57
explanation and placed responsibility on
58
the company, finding the tank
59
structurally inadequate. The earlier
60
leaks consequently belonged to a
61
different account of the disaster: they
62
were evidence to be considered alongside
63
engineering deficiencies, rather than
64
merely inconveniences preceding an
65
extraordinary attack. The inquiry
66
required looking backward, but its
67
standard was more demanding than the
68
observation that a structure had once
69
stayed upright.
70
The company ultimately paid damages.
71
Neither payment nor an engineering
72
finding could restore the lives lost,
73
and this case alone did not create the
74
practice of holding builders responsible
75
for unsafe work. Still, in an early and
76
conspicuous application of engineering
77
standards to corporate responsibility,
78
calculations and construction decisions
79
received sustained legal scrutiny. The
80
flood’s spectacular character had
81
attracted attention to the streets; the
82
proceedings kept attention on drawings,
83
testimony, and decisions made before
84
those streets were overwhelmed.

Question 13

Which statement best expresses the central idea of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: B — The investigation of an extraordinary disaster established responsibility by examining ordinary construction decisions against engineering standards.

The passage moves from the flood’s unusual appearance to the evidence through which the company was held responsible for structural inadequacy. The claim that the substance prevented investigation conflicts with the sustained inquiry described. The claim favoring operating history reverses the passage’s distinction between surviving earlier loads and meeting engineering standards. The claim about establishing a new principle exceeds the final paragraph’s explicit qualification of the case’s historical importance.

Question 14

Which statement about the proceedings is best supported by combining the auditor’s findings with the qualification in lines 73–75?

Show answer

Answer: B — They provided a conspicuous application of an existing practice of accountability by subjecting the company’s engineering and construction decisions to sustained legal examination.

The correct answer combines the finding of structural inadequacy with the author’s description of an early, conspicuous application of an existing accountability practice. The claim about leaks makes them sufficient evidence, although the passage considers them alongside engineering deficiencies. The claim about the first prominent use exceeds the passage’s description of an early application. The claim about mandatory testing invents a requirement imposed by the proceedings; the passage identifies missing testing as part of the tank’s history.

Question 15

The passage suggests that the company’s sabotage explanation would have been strengthened most by evidence that

Show answer

Answer: A — connected an attack to the tank’s destruction rather than merely establishing that attacks were conceivable.

The passage distinguishes a generally plausible threat from evidence that the threat caused this specific collapse. Greater public fear would strengthen the claim’s appeal without connecting an attacker to the tank. Repeated fillings are precisely the kind of evidence the passage treats as insufficient to establish structural adequacy. Extensive destruction could result from the released molasses and would not by itself identify sabotage as the cause.

Question 16

In lines 66–68, the word “standard” most nearly refers to a

Show answer

Answer: C — criterion used to judge whether the available evidence adequately supported a conclusion.

The correct answer captures the sentence’s contrast between observing that the tank once stood and obtaining sufficient grounds for a conclusion about its adequacy. A construction specification is relevant to the engineering investigation, but “standard” here concerns the sufficiency of the inquiry’s reasoning. A compensation rule concerns the consequences of assigning responsibility rather than the basis for reaching a finding. An admission procedure concerns whether testimony may be heard, whereas the sentence concerns what the evidence establishes.

Question 17

Which best describes the organization of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: D — It presents a disaster, examines its history and a competing explanation, and considers the inquiry’s outcome and significance.

The passage begins with the flood, turns to the tank’s earlier condition and the sabotage claim, and concludes with the inquiry and its qualified significance. It does not begin with a verdict or challenge that verdict’s influence. It mentions a missing test but does not compare proposed safeguards or explain decisions to reject them. It applies engineering standards to the case without tracing their development or demonstrating prevention of later failures.

Question 18

The author’s tone in discussing the legal outcome is best described as

Show answer

Answer: A — approving of the accountability achieved but restrained about its reach.

The author treats the scrutiny of construction decisions as significant while acknowledging both the irreparable losses and earlier instances of builder accountability. Nothing suggests doubt about the engineering findings or special admiration for the amount paid. Explaining the logic of the sabotage claim does not amount to sympathy with the company’s position. The explicit recognition of lost lives and the qualification of historical novelty rule out unrestrained celebration and indifference.

Questions 19–24

1
After traffic decreased along several old
2
city blocks, green-gray patches began to
3
return to the brick walls. The first new
4
lichen appeared on surfaces sheltered from
5
road spray rather than on the most visibly
6
clean wall. That uneven return mattered.
7
If cleaner air alone controlled growth,
8
every wall with less pollution should have
9
recovered at roughly the same pace.
10
A lichen is a partnership. Fungal tissue
11
holds moisture and minerals, while algae
12
within it use light to make food. A crust
13
may widen by only a millimeter or two in a
14
year, so a patch the size of a coin can
15
represent a decade of favorable seasons.
16
Neither partner needs deep soil, so
17
together they can occupy bare brick. Yet a
18
wall remains a demanding home. Sun warms
19
it quickly, wind removes water, and rain
20
may wash one face more strongly than
21
another. A patch survives only if the
22
partnership receives enough light without
23
drying too fast.
24
The sheltered blocks offered that balance.
25
Their surfaces were exposed to daylight
26
but protected from much of the salty road
27
spray thrown by passing vehicles. Winter
28
grit flung as high as three meters leaves
29
a chloride film on masonry, and that film
30
pulls moisture back out of any living
31
tissue it settles on, even when the
32
surface looks perfectly bare. The cleanest
33
wall, however, faced open sun and dried
34
soon after rain. Its bright surface did
35
not guarantee a suitable habitat.
36
Moisture, light, surface texture, and air
37
quality acted together, which is why a
38
simple ranking from “dirty” to “clean”
39
missed the pattern.
40
Over several seasons, the wall becomes a
41
slow map of changing air. The map does not
42
mark pollution with sharp borders; it
43
records where improved air meets usable
44
shelter. Lichen returning to brick
45
therefore shows that biological recovery
46
depends on several local conditions.
47
Removing one stress can create an
48
opportunity, but the organism still has to
49
find a place where its other needs
50
overlap.
51
The expanding edges of a patch provided
52
another clue. Growth proceeded outward
53
from places where lichen had already
54
survived, rather than appearing at once
55
across the whole wall. Rough mortar held
56
moisture longer than smooth brick and
57
sometimes supported the first foothold.
58
Those details help explain why recovery
59
can look irregular even when air quality
60
improves across an entire neighborhood.

Question 19

Two equally sunlit wall areas receive similar rain. One is rough mortar beside a surviving lichen patch; the other is smooth brick far from any patch. Which outcome is most likely?

Show answer

Answer: C — The rough, adjacent area should recover first because it retains moisture and lies where surviving lichen can expand outward.

The last paragraph says growth spreads outward from surviving patches, and that rough mortar holds moisture longer than smooth brick. Those two facts make the rough, adjacent area the more likely first foothold (C). A is wrong because a visibly clean surface is not the strongest sign of a suitable habitat. B is wrong because equal sun and rain do not make texture or proximity unimportant. D reverses the growth pattern: new lichen does not appear most readily far from established patches.

Question 20

As used in line 25, “exposed” most nearly means

Show answer

Answer: A — left open to the effects of surrounding conditions.

The surfaces are open to daylight while still protected from much of the road spray.

Question 21

Which choice best states the passage’s main idea?

Show answer

Answer: D — Cleaner air can create an opportunity for recovery whose location and pace still depend on several wall conditions.

The passage uses road spray, light, moisture, texture, and existing patches to show why broad air improvement creates an opportunity but does not determine recovery by itself.

Question 22

Which description best captures the tone of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: C — measured and curious about a recovery shaped by overlapping conditions.

The author examines several clues and qualifies the wall-as-map image rather than reducing recovery to one factor.

Question 23

Which best describes the organization of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: A — It introduces uneven recovery, explains habitat demands, compares walls, draws a qualified conclusion, and then adds further local evidence.

The passage opens with uneven return, explains what a lichen needs on a wall, compares sheltered and sun-dried surfaces, generalizes that recovery depends on overlapping local conditions, and then supplies further evidence from expanding patches and rough mortar. Choice B treats the passage as a cleanliness ranking and a direct air map. Choice C makes shelter the single main condition. Choice D makes texture the controlling factor.

Question 24

Why does the author note that the first new lichen did not appear on the most visibly clean wall?

Show answer

Answer: D — to provide a counterexample to the idea that air cleanliness alone predicts where recovery begins.

The clean wall’s slower recovery introduces evidence that less pollution is not sufficient without suitable shelter, moisture, light, and surface conditions.

Questions 25–30

1
A migratory bird inside an experimental
2
chamber may change its preferred
3
direction when researchers rotate the
4
surrounding magnetic field, even though
5
the room itself remains unchanged. Such
6
experiments separate a magnetic
7
influence from familiar landmarks, but
8
they leave the receiving apparatus
9
concealed. A change in heading is an
10
observable consequence; the event that
11
begins the process may occur within a
12
cell. Between those two scales, several
13
plausible explanations compete for a
14
remarkably incomplete chain of evidence.
15
One explanation assigns the initial
16
response to tiny particles of magnetic
17
iron minerals. Forces acting on these
18
particles could, through surrounding
19
cellular structures, influence nerve
20
signals. The proposal has an appealing
21
physical directness, but finding iron in
22
a bird is not equivalent to finding a
23
magnetic receptor. Iron-rich cells in
24
pigeon beaks, once identified as
25
possible sensory structures, were
26
subsequently shown to be immune cells
27
rather than the proposed nerve endings.
28
That finding undermined a particular
29
anatomical claim without eliminating
30
every possible role for magnetic
31
particles elsewhere.
32
Another explanation begins with light
33
striking proteins called cryptochromes,
34
which occur in birds’ retinas. Light can
35
initiate reactions that produce pairs of
36
molecules with unpaired electrons. Under
37
suitable conditions, a magnetic field
38
can influence the reactions’ outcomes.
39
If a bird could register the resulting
40
differences, information about its
41
orientation might enter the visual
42
system without any mineral particle
43
turning like a compass needle.
44
Laboratory studies of cryptochromes
45
support the chemical possibility,
46
although demonstrating a magnetic effect
47
in a protein sample does not establish
48
how a living bird would use it.
49
Behavioral evidence adds weight without
50
closing that gap. In some experiments,
51
birds’ magnetic orientation depends on
52
the color of available light; weak,
53
oscillating magnetic fields have also
54
disrupted orientation under certain
55
conditions. Both observations are
56
consistent with the proposed chemical
57
mechanism. Yet consistency does not
58
identify the protein responsible or
59
trace a signal from retina to brain.
60
Light also affects ordinary vision, and
61
experimental conditions influence what
62
birds do. A disrupted heading therefore
63
requires interpretation, much as the
64
discovery of iron required an anatomical
65
investigation.
66
The apparent rivalry may also conceal a
67
division of labor. Maintaining a
68
direction and determining one’s position
69
are different navigational problems: a
70
compass can guide a traveler east
71
without revealing how far east the
72
traveler already is. Birds might obtain
73
these kinds of information through
74
different mechanisms, so evidence for
75
one need not automatically displace the
76
other. An experiment that selectively
77
disables a candidate sensor while
78
preserving vision and general activity
79
would be more discriminating than
80
another demonstration that magnetic
81
fields affect a bird. The difficult step
82
is making the interruption as specific
83
as the proposed explanation.

Question 25

Which statement best expresses the central idea of the passage?

Show answer

Answer: B — Evidence supports magnetic sensing in birds, but identifying its mechanisms requires separating suggestive findings from specific causal connections.

The passage distinguishes evidence that birds respond to magnetic fields from evidence identifying the structures and processes responsible. The claim about chemical experiments assumes that a sensor has already been identified, although the connection to living birds remains incomplete. The claim about two separate senses turns a possible division of labor into an established finding. The claim about magnetic sensing itself being doubtful overlooks the opening experiments and confuses uncertainty about a mechanism with uncertainty about an observed response.

Question 26

Which comparison most accurately describes the limitations of the evidence concerning iron-rich beak cells and cryptochromes?

Show answer

Answer: D — The beak-cell evidence lost its proposed sensory interpretation, while the cryptochrome evidence still needs a connection to the bird’s use of magnetic information.

The beak cells were identified as immune cells rather than the proposed nerve endings, whereas laboratory cryptochrome findings have yet to establish how a living bird uses the effect. The receptor-and-signal comparison incorrectly treats the beak cells as established receptors and overlooks the stated presence of cryptochromes in retinas. The position-and-direction comparison assigns definite functions that the passage presents only as a possible division of labor. The comparison declaring both kinds of evidence failures denies the proposed physical response of magnetic particles and overstates the implications of ordinary vision.

Question 27

In lines 79–80, the word “discriminating” most nearly means

Show answer

Answer: C — effective at distinguishing among explanations.

The proposed experiment would distinguish a particular sensor’s contribution from the broader fact that magnetic fields affect birds. Equipment requirements are not the basis of the comparison. Sensitivity to small environmental changes concerns detecting an effect rather than identifying its cause. Representativeness outside the laboratory is not discussed as an advantage of the selective interruption.

Question 28

How does the final paragraph develop the discussion that precedes it?

Show answer

Answer: B — It questions whether the explanations must exclude each other and proposes evidence more closely tied to a particular mechanism.

The final paragraph introduces a possible division of labor and then favors an experiment that selectively interrupts a candidate sensor. It does not rank the observations or declare the chemical explanation the winner. Its allocation of different tasks remains hypothetical and does not resolve the earlier evidentiary gaps. Although it discusses navigational tasks, it continues examining sensory mechanisms and does not propose natural-route observations.

Question 29

The author returns to the discovery of iron at the end of the fourth paragraph primarily to

Show answer

Answer: A — connect two cases in which a relevant observation falls short of identifying the process responsible.

The reference links iron’s presence and disrupted orientation as observations requiring further investigation before a sensory mechanism can be identified. It does not predict that the behavioral findings will be overturned. It draws a parallel between interpretive problems rather than ranking anatomy above behavior. It also supplies no evidence that mineral particles and cryptochromes depend on the same structures.

Question 30

Which description best captures the author’s tone toward the competing explanations?

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Answer: C — Receptive to both proposals but exacting about what would establish their actual roles.

The author recognizes the plausibility of both mechanisms while repeatedly requiring evidence that connects a candidate mechanism to its function. Confidence that chemical findings have displaced the mineral proposal conflicts with the possibility of complementary roles. Doubt that experiments can distinguish contributions conflicts with the proposed selective interruption. Confidence in behavior alone overlooks the author’s insistence that an altered heading does not identify the receiving apparatus.

Questions 31–36

1
During an observatory open house, Caleb
2
promised visitors a view of a dim double
3
star. The pair sat about four arcseconds
4
apart, close enough that the observatory’s
5
six-inch refractor could split them only
6
on a steady night. Through the eyepiece,
7
however, the point of light spread into a
8
blur. He cleaned the glass, adjusted
9
focus, and checked the telescope’s mount.
10
The star sharpened briefly, then faded
11
again while brighter stars nearby remained
12
visible.
13
Caleb reached for another cloth before
14
noticing that the blur was moving. He
15
looked away from the telescope and
16
compared the open sky with the star chart.
17
A thin cloud crossed the target’s
18
position, almost invisible against the
19
dark. Cleaning the nearest piece of glass
20
could never remove something traveling far
21
above it.
22
“Not the glass,” he said to the visitors.
23
The thin cloud dimmed their star without
24
covering the whole sky. He then explained
25
what he had found and aimed at a brighter
26
cluster outside the cloud’s path. He
27
returned to the double star between
28
groups, using its brief clear moments to
29
confirm that the focus setting had been
30
correct.
31
The cloud was a gray thumbprint sliding
32
over the stars. By the end of the evening
33
it had moved east, and the double star
34
separated cleanly in the eyepiece. Its
35
edge took eleven minutes to clear the
36
field, timed against the sweep-second hand
37
on the dome clock while the last group
38
waited its turn at the ladder. Caleb kept
39
the cloth in his pocket. The failed
40
cleaning had taught him to ask where a
41
blur belonged before trying again to
42
polish it away.
43
When the cloud passed, he invited the
44
waiting group back to the original target.
45
The two points sat apart in the eyepiece.
46
He opened the observatory log, found an
47
earlier note of high thin clouds, and
48
added his own time and target beside it.
49
He pointed out the last of the cloud as it
50
crossed a brighter star. “Tonight it was
51
the sky,” he said, “but I wouldn’t swear
52
that every smudge starts there.”

Question 31

Which description best characterizes the story’s tone?

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Answer: B — warm and quietly reflective about careful diagnosis.

The narration warmly follows Caleb’s changed assumption and reflects on locating a cause while stating the limits of a correct diagnosis.

Question 32

Which best describes the organization of the passage?

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Answer: D — It moves from unsuccessful equipment checks to a moving obstruction and closes with adapted viewing, records, and a qualified lesson.

The story proceeds from cleaning and focusing to sky evidence, an alternate target, later confirmation, and a limited diagnosis recorded for others.

Question 33

What is the author’s primary purpose in telling this story?

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Answer: B — to show how Caleb locates a cause, tests it with several observations, and respects the diagnosis’s limits.

Caleb moves beyond the nearest possible cause, gathers evidence for the cloud, and explicitly notes that other blurs can come from instruments.

Question 34

On a later night, the log notes a clear sky, a blur remains fixed as the telescope moves between targets, and bright and dim stars are affected alike. What would Caleb most likely investigate next?

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Answer: C — the telescope’s components, since the blur no longer follows the moving, localized pattern of the earlier cloud.

Caleb’s earlier diagnosis depended on the blur moving across one part of a sky where other stars remained clear, and he acknowledges that instruments can cause other blurs. The new pattern reverses those observations and therefore redirects the investigation.

Question 35

In line 29, the word “setting” most nearly means

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Answer: B — a selected adjustment on a device.

The phrase refers to the telescope’s selected focus adjustment, which Caleb confirms was correct.

Question 36

Which statement best expresses the passage’s idea about observation records?

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Answer: C — Earlier notes and current checks can strengthen a diagnosis and help later observers investigate a similar problem.

The earlier cloud note supports Caleb’s current evidence, and his added time and target give later guides a useful starting point rather than a guaranteed answer.

In the app the clock runs, you can pause and pick up where you left off, every question is explained afterwards, and your score is estimated on the test’s own scale. Extended time (1.5× or 2×) is there if you have an accommodation.

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